31 January 2013

Physics Homework Ch3

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PLEASE FORGIVE my voice quality in these (Chapter 3) videos. I made them while suffering from a severely sore throat.

1. Vector A has a magnitude of 31 units and points in the positive Y-direction. When vector B is added to A, the resultant vector A+B points in the negative y-direction with a magnitude of 17 units. Find the magnitude and direction of vector B?
Magnitude______Units?
Direction (+x, -x, +y, or -y)?




2. Vector A has a magnitude of 8.00 units and makes an angle of 45 degrees counter-clockwise from the positive x-axis. Vector B also has a magnitude of 8 units and is directed along the negative x-axis.
a). Using the graphical methods, find the vector sum, A+B. (Do this on paper. Your instructor may ask you to turn in this work).
b). Using the graphical methods, find the vector difference, A-B. (Do this on paper. Your instructor may ask you to turn in this work




3. A plane flies from base camp to lake A, a distance of 280 km at a direction of 20.0 degrees north of east. After dropping off supplies, the plane flies to lake B, which is 190 km and 30.0 degrees west of north from lake A. Graphically determine the distance and direction from lake B to the base camp. (Do this on paper. your instructor may ask you to turn in this work).





4. A force F1 of magnitude 6.60 units acts on an object at the origin in a direction θ = 26.0 degrees above the positive x-axis. (see the figure below). A second force F2 of magnitude 5.00 units acts on the object in the direction of the positive y-axis. Find graphically the magnitude and direction of the resultant force F1 + F2
Magnitude ________ Units
Direction __________ degrees counterclockwise from the +x axis













5. A person walks 30.0 degrees north of East for 3.30 km. How far due north and how far due east would she have to walk to arrive at the same location?
North ________ km
East __________km



6.The magnitude of vector A is 39.5 units and points in the direction 330 degrees counterclockwise from the positive x axis. Calculate the x and y-components of this vector
Ax = __________ Units
Ay = __________Units



7. A girl delivering newspapers covers her route by traveling 8.00 blocks west, 4.00 blocks north, and then 4.00 blocks east.
a). What is her resultant displacement?
_____ blocks
b). What is the total distance she travels?
_____ blocks



8. A vector has an x-component of -27.0 units and a y-component of 30.0 units. Find the magnitude and direction of the vector.
magnitude ______ units
direction ______ degrees (counterclockwise from the +x-axis)




9. The eye of a hurricane passes over Grand Bahama Island in a direction 60.0 degrees north of west with a speed of 44.0 km/h. Three hours later, the course of the hurricane suddenly shifts due north, and its speed slows to 22.0 km/h. How far from Grand Bahama is the hurricane 4.40 h after it passes over the island?
_______km

Purchase the Calculator for Chapter 3 Problem 9 ($1.35)







10. A map suggests that Atlanta is 730 miles in a direction 5.00 degrees north of east from Dallas. The same map shows that Chicago is 560 miles in a direction 21.0 degrees west of north from Atlanta. The figure below shows the location of these three cities. Modeling the Earth as flat, use this information to find the displacement from Dallas to Chicago.
Magnitude _______mi
Direction _______ degrees north of east of Dallas




11. A commuter airplane starts from an airport and takes the route shown in the figure below. The plane first flies to city A, located 175 km away in the direction 30.0 degrees north of east. Next, it flies for 150 km 20.0 degrees west of north, to city B. Finally, the plane flies 190 km due west, to city C. Find the location of city C relative to the location of the starting point.
Distance ________ km
angle _________ degrees west of north



12. The helicopter view in the figure below shows two people pulling on a stubborn mule. (Take F1 = 146 N and F2 = 79.0 N).

a) Find the single force that is equivalent to the two forces shown above.
Magnitude __________ N
direction _________ degrees counter clockwise from the x-axis

b) Find the force that a third person would have to exert on the mule to make the net force equal to zero.
Magnitude ________ N
direction _________ degrees (counterclockwise from the x-axis)




















13.One of the fastest recorded pitches in major-league baseball, thrown by Tim Lincecum in 2009, was clocked at 101.0 mi/h (see the figure). If a pitch were thrown horizontally with this velocity, how far would the ball fall vertically by the time it reached home plate, 60.5 ft away?
______ ft













14. The best leaper in the animal kingdom is the puma, which can jump to a height of 3.7 m when leaving the ground at an angle of 45 degrees. With what speed must the animal leave the ground to reach that height?
___________m/s



Another way to solve this problem:

15. A place-kicker must kick a football from a point of 36.0 m (about 40 yards) from the goal. Half the crowd hopes the ball will clear the crossbar, which is 3.05 m high. When kicked, the ball leaves the ground with a speed of 22.8 m/s at an angle of 50.0 degrees to the horizontal.
a). By how much does the ball clear or fall short (vertically) of clearing the crossbar? (Enter a negative answer if it falls short).
______m
b). Does the ball approach the crossbar (and cross above or beneath it) while still rising or while falling?
--Rising
--Falling



16. A brick is thrown upward from the top of a building at an angle of 20 degrees to the horizontal and with an initial speed of 12 m/s. If the brick is in flight for 3.0 s, how tall is the building?
_______ m




17. An artillery shell is fired with an initial velocity of 300 m/s at 55 degrees above the horizontal. To clear an avalanche, it explodes on a mountainside 43.0 s after firing. What are the x- and y-coordinates of the shell where it explodes, relative to its firing point?
x =  ______ m
y = _______ m



18. A fireman d = 56.0 m away from a burning building directs a stream of water from a ground-level fire hose at an angle of θi = 24.0 degrees above the horizontal as shown in the figure. If the speed of the streram as it leaves the hose is vi = 40.0 m/s, at what height will the stream of water strike the building?
________ m














27 January 2013

Physics question from Delisa

Delisa asked,
"A ball is thrown directly downward with an initial speed of 8.95 m/s, from a height of 29.8 m. After what time interval does it strike the ground?"
Although this question is very similar to ch 2 question 16, I decided to answer it because she is such a good friend.

25 January 2013

Physics Homework Ch2

1. Light travels at a speed of about 3.0 X  m/s.
(a) How many miles does a pulse of light travel in a time interval of 0.1 s, which is about the blink of an eye?
(b) Compare this distance to the diameter of Earth. (Use 6.38 X 106 m for the radius of the Earth.)

VIDEO Answer:



2. a person travels by car from one city to another with different constant speeds between pairs of cities. She drives for 60.0 miin at 70.0 km/h, 11.0 min at 90.0 km/h, and 35.0 min at 35.0 km/h and spends 20.0 min eating lunch and buying gas
(a) Determine the average speed for the trip (km/h)
(b) Determine the distance between the initial and final cities along the route

VIDEO Answer:




3. Two boats start together and race across a 72-km-wide lake and back. Boat A goes across at 72 km/h and returns at 72 km/h. Boat B goes across at 36 km/h, and its crew, realizing how far behind it is getting, returns at 108 km/h. Turnaround times are negligible, and the boat that completes the round-trip first wins.
(a) Which boat wins? (or is it a tie)?
-- By how much?
(b) What is the average velocity of the winning boat?



4. A graph of position versus time for a certain particle moving along the x-axis is shown in the figure below. Find the average velocity in the following time intervals:

Graph of Position Versus Time











(a) 0 to 2.00 s
(b) 0 to 4.00 s
(c) 2.00 to 4.00 s
(d) 4.00 to 7.00 s
(e) 0 to 8.00 s




5. Two cars travel in the same direction along a straight highway, one at a constant speed of 55 m/h and the other at 65 mi/h.
(a) Assuming they start at the same point, how much sooner does the faster car arrive at a destination 7 mi away?
(b) How far must the faster car travel before it has a 15-min lead on the slower car?




6. The cheetah can reach a top speed of 114 km/h (71 mi/h). While chasing its prey in a short sprint, a cheetah starts from rest and runs 48 m in a straight line, reaching a final speed of 76 km/h
(a) Determine the cheetah's average acceleration during the short sprint
(b) Find its displacement at t = 3.3 s. (Assume the cheetah maintains a constant acceleration throughout the sprint).




7. A car traveling east at 45.1 m/s passes a trooper hiding at the roadside. The driver uniformly reduces his speed to 25.0 m/s in 3.80 s.
(a) What is the magnitude and direction of the Car's acceleration as it slows down?
  - Magnitude is m/s^2
(b) How far does the car travel in the 3.80-s time period?




8. The velocity vs. time graph for an object moving along a straight path is shown in the figure below.
Graph of Velocity versus Time














(i) find the average acceleration of this object during the following time intervals.
0s to 5.0 s (m/s^2)
5.0 s to 15 s (m/s^2)
0 s to 20 s (m/s^2)

(ii) Find the instantaneous accelerations at the following times
2.0 s (m/s^2)
10 s (m/s^2)
18 s (m/s^2)




9. A steam catapult launches a jet aircraft from the aircraft carrier John C. Stennis, giving it a speed of 170 mi/h in 2.6 s
(a) Find the average acceleration of the plane (m/s^2)
(b) Assuming the acceleration is constant, find the distance the plane moves (m)




10. An object moving with uniform acceleration has a velocity of 11.0 cm/s in the positive x-direction when its x-coordinate is 2.97 cm. If its x-coordinate 1.85 s later is -5.00cm, what is its acceleration? (cm/s^2)



11. A truck covers 40.0 m in 7.05 s while uniformly slowing down to a final velocity of 2.25 m/s.
(a) Find the truck's original speed (m/s)
(b) find its acceleration (m/s^2)



12. A Cessna Aircraft has a liftoff speed of 120 km/h.
(a) What minimum constant acceleration does the aircraft require if it is to be airborne after a takeoff run of 270 m (m/s^2)?
(b) How long does it take the aircraft to become airborne (seconds)?





13. A jet plane lands with a speed of 118 m/s and can accelerate at a maximum rate of -5.20 m/s^2 as it comes to rest.
(a) From the instant the plane touches the runway, what is the minimum time needed before it can come to rest (seconds)
(b) Can this plane land on a small tropical island airport where the runway is 0.800km long?



14. A car starts from rest and travels for 9.0 s with a uniform acceleration of +1.9 m/s^2. The driver then applies the brakes, causing a uniform acceleratoin of -1.0 m/s^2. If the brakes are applied for 3.0 s, determine each of the following.
(a) How fast is the car going at the end of the braking period (m/s)?
(b) how far has the car gone (m)?





15. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 10.0 m/s.
(a) How high does it rise (m)?
(b) How long does it take to reach its highest point (s)?
(c) How long does the ball take to hit the ground after it reaches the highest point (s)?
(d) What is its velocity when it returns to the level from which it started?



16. A ball is thrown directly downward with an initial speed of 8.20 m/s, from a height of 29.8 m. After what time interval does it strike the ground (s)




17. A baseball is hit so that it travels straight upward after being struck by the bat. A fan observes that it takes 2.90 s for the ball to reach its maximum height.
(a) Find the ball's initial velocity (m/s)
(b) Find the height it reaches (m)

07 January 2013

ANSWERS BIO 106 Unit 3 Cell Biology Part 6



1.       Which of the following statements about osmosis is correct
A. The presence of aquaporins (proteins that form water channels in the membrane) should speed up the process of osmosis
B. Osmosis is the diffusion of water from a region of lower water concentration to a region of higher water concentration
C. Osmotic movement of water into a cell would likely occur if the cell accumulates water from its environment
D. IF a cell is placed in an istonic solution, more water will enter the cell than leaves the cell.
E. If a solution outside the cell is hypotonic compared to the cytoplasm, water will move into the cell by osmosis

2.       Which of the following statements about a typical plasma membrane is correct?
A. Carbohydrates on the membrane surface are important in determining the overall bilayer structure.
B. The hydrophilic interior of the membrane is composed primarily of the fatty acid tails of the phospholipids
C. The two sides of the plasma membrane have different lipid protein composition
D. The plasma membrane is a covalently linked network of phospholipids and proteins that controls the movement of solutes into and out of a cell
E. Phospholipids are the primary content that determines which solutes can cross the plasma membrane

3.       Which of the following correctly describes some aspect of exocytosis and endocytosis?
A. The inner surface of a transport vesicle that fuses with or buds from the plasma membrane is most closely related to the inner surface of the plasma membrane
B. Endocytosis and exocytosis involve passive transport
C. These two processes require the participation of mitochondria
D. Exocytosis and endocytosis change the surface area of the plasma membrane
E. Both processes provide a mechanism for exchanging membrane impermeable molecules between the organelles and the cytosol

4.       If the concentration of phosphate in the cytosol is 3.0 mM and the concentration of phosphate in the surrounding fluid is 0.2 mM, how could the cell increase the concentration of phosphate in the cytosol?
A. Passive transport
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Facilitated diffusion

5.       Which of the following is least likely to be important in holding components of a biological membrane together?
A. Hydrophobic interactions among the fatty acid tails of phospholipids on the same side of the membrane
B. Polar interactions among the phospholipid head groups on the same surface of the membrane
C. Hydrophobic interactions among the fatty acid tails of phospholipids on the opposite sides of the membrane
D. Covalent interactions between the phospholipid and protein components of the membrane
E. Hydrophobic interactions between the phospholipid tails and the surface of integral membrane proteins buried in the membrane

6.       The movement of glucose into a cell against a concentration gradient is most likely to be accomplished by which of the following?
A. Movement of glucose into the cell through a glucose cahnnel
B. Passive diffusion of the glucose through the lipid bilayer
C. Facilitated diffusion of the glucose using a carrier protein
D. Cotransport of the glucose with sodium ion that was pumped across the membrane using the energy of ATP hydrolysis
E. Receptor-mediated endocytosis

7.       The permeability of a biological membrane to a specific charged solute may depend on which of the following?
A. The total amount of cholesterol in the membrane
B. The types of transport proteins in the membrane
C. The phospholipid composition of the membrane
D. The presence of unsaturated fatty acids in the membrane
E. The types of polysaccharides present in the membrane

8.       Active and passive transport of solutes across the membrane typically differ in which of the following ways?
A. Active transport is usually down the concentration gradient of the solute, whereas passive transport is always against the concentration gradient of the solute
B. Active transport always involves the utilization of cellular energy, whereas passive transport does not require cellular energy
C. Active transport is always faster than passive transport
D. Active transport uses protein carriers, whereas passive transport uses carbohydrate carriers.
E. Active transport is used for ions, passive transport is used for uncharged solutes

9.       Which of the following factors does not affect membrane fluidity and/or permeability
A. The amount of cholesterol in the membrane
B. Temperature
C. Saturation of hydrocarbon tails in membrane phospholipids
D. The polarity of membrane phospholipids

10.   What distinguishes facilitated diffusion from simple diffusion?
A Water never moves through membranes by facilitated diffusion
B. No energy is used to move molecules ocross the membrane
C. Molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
D. Membrane proteins help move molecules across the membrane

11.   Which of the following statements about the combustion of glucose with oxygen to form water and carbon dioxide is correct?
A. The free energy lost in this combustion is less than the energy that appears as heat.
B. The reverse reaction, making glucose from water and carbon dioxide, must be an exergonic reaction
C. The entropy of the products is greater than the entropy of the reactants.
D. The entropy of the universe decreases as the result of this reaction
E. This is the process of cellular respiration, on anabolic pathway that releases free energy

12.   Which of these is exhibiting kinetic energy?
A. an archer with a flexed bow
B. a person sitting on a couch while watching TV
C. A space station orbiting Earth
D. a rock on o mountain ledge
E. The high-energy phosphate bonds of o molecule of ATP

13.   Which of the following statements about equilibrium of chemical reactions is correct?
A. Reactions con only go in the direction toward equilibrium
B. The equilibrium point is where the system hos the highest free energy
C. The equilibrium point of a reaction represents the least stable configuration for that reaction
D. Most reactions in a living cell are close to equilibrium
 E. A reaction that is at equilibrium is not capable of doing any work

14.   Which of the following would be unlikely to contribute to the specificity of an enzyme?
A. A positive charge on the substrate to a negative charge in the active site of the enzyme
B. The enzyme has the ability to change its configuration in response to the substrate binding
C. A hydrophobic Group on the substrate interacts with several hydrophobic amino acids on the enzyme
D. The enzyme has an allosteric regulatory site
E. A similar shape exists between a pocket on the surface of the enzyme and a functional group on the substrate

15.   The binding of a compound to on enzyme is observed to slow down or stop the rate of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. increasing the substrate concentration reduces the inhibitory effects of this compound. Which of the following could account for this observation
A. The compound causes a cofactor to be last from the enzyme
B. The compound reduces disulfide bonds, causing the enzyme molecules to partially unfold
C. The compound forms a covalent bond with one of the amino acid residues needed f or enzyme activity.
D. The compound is a negative allosteric regulator
E. The compound is a competitive inhibitor

16.   Which of the following statements about ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is correct?
A. Almost all of the free energy released on the hydrolysis of ATP is released as heat
B. the cycling between ATP on ADP +Pi provides an energy coupling between catabolic on anabolic pathways
C. The hydrolysis of ATP is an endergonic process
D. The hydrolysis of ATP con supply energy needed for catabolic pathways
E. The energy release on hydrolysis of ATP is the result of breaking a high-energy bond

17.   Which statement about the binding of enzymes on substrates is correct?
A. substrate molecules fit into the active site of an enzyme like a key fits into a lock
B. substrate molecules bind to the active site of the enzyme, The enzyme undergoes a slight change in shape.
C. Substrate molecules bind to the active site of the enzyme only by weak bonds, such as hydrogen bonds or hydrophobic attraction

18.   In general, most known enzymes are what kinds of molecules?
A. lipids
B. Proteins
C. carbohydrates
D. nucleic acids
E. minerals

19.   How does on enzyme increase the rate of the chemical reaction it catalyzes?
A. An enzyme's active site binds only the reactants, on not the products of a reaction, pushing the equilibrium f or the reaction for to the right.
B. An enzyme reduces the free-energy change (delta G) of the reaction it catalyzes
C. An enzyme reduces the Activation Energy (Ea) of the reaction it catalyzes

20.   the electrons stripped from glucose in aerobic cellular respiration end up forming which molecule?
A. Water
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. NADH
E. ATP

21.   In this reaction ___________________________ 


















A. CD is a product
B. products have less potential energy that the reactants
C. AC is a reactant
D. entropy has decreased
E. the products have been rearranged to form reactants

22.   Which statement about the citric acid cycle is correct?
A. The oxidation of compounds by the citric acid cycle directly requires molecular oxygen
B. The citric acid cycle oxidizes glucose to carbon dioxide
C. The citric acid cycle depends on the availability of NAD+, which is a product of glycolysis
D. The last reaction in the citric acid cycle produces a product that is a substrate for the first reaction of the citric acid cycle.
E. The citric acid cycle produces most of the ATP that is subsequently used by the electron transport chain

23.   Which one of the following statements about the redox reactions of the electron transport chain is correct?
A. NADH gains electrons in the initial reaction of the electron transport chain.
B. The redox reactions of the electron transport chain ore directly coupled to the movement of protons across a membrane
C. The electron transport chain takes electrons from water and gives them to oxygen
D. The redox reactions of the electron transport chain ore directly coupled with the synthesis of ATP
E. The oxidation of NADH is directly coupled to the reduction of oxygen to water

24.   Which of the following describes the process of glycolysis?
A. Glycolysis produces 30 ATP from each molecule of glucose
B. It requires ATP and NADH
C. Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
D. It represents the first stage in the chemical oxidation of glucose
E. It converts one glucose molecule to two molecules of pyruvate and carbon dioxide

25.   A glucose molecule is completely broken down to carbon dioxide on water in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but together these two processes yield only a few molecules of ATP. What happened to most of the energy that the cell obtains from the oxidation of glucose?
A. It was lost as heat
B. It is stored in NADH and FADH2
C. It is stored in pyruvate
D. It is stored in carbon dioxide and water molecules released by these processes
E. It is stored in the ATP that was formed by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

26.   In the combined process of glycolysis and cellular respiration, What is consumed and what is produced?
A. ATP is consumed, and oxygen is produced
B. Oxygen is consumed, and glucose is produced
C. Glucose is consumed, and carbon dioxide is produced
D. Water is consumed, and ATP is produced
E. Carbon dioxide is consumed, and water is produced

27.   Identify the correct statement about the basic function of fermentation
A. The basic function of fermentation is the production of ethyl alcohol or lactic acid
B. The basic function of fermentation is the regeneration of NAD+, which allows continued ATP production by glycolysis
C. The basic function of fermentation is the production of additional ATP by further oxidation of the products of glycolysis

28.   Select the correct statement about cellular respiration
A. Cellular respiration and breathing differ in that cellular respiration is at the cellular level, whereas breathing is at the organismal level
B. Animals carry out cellular respiration whereas plants carry out photosynthesis
C. Plants carry out cellular respiration only in organs such as roots that cannot carry out photosynthesis

29.   In muscle cells, fermentation produces:
A. lactate, NAD+, and ATP
B. carbon dioxide, ethanol, NADH, and ATP
C. Pyruvate and NAD+
D. Carbon dioxide, ethanol, and NAD+
E. Pyruvate only

30.   In cellular respiration, a series of molecules forming an electron transport chain alternatively accepts and then donates electrons. What is the advantage of such an electron transport chain?
A. The advantage of an electron transport chain is that a small amount of energy is released with the transfer of an electron between each pair of intermediates
B. The advantage of the respiratory electron transport chain is that oxygen is the final electron acceptor
C. The advantage of an electron transport chain is the production of a large number of reduced, high-energy intermediates.


For each of the following phrases, pick the best term (A through J) that best matches it. Each term is used only once
A) Activation energy   B) Active site  C) Energy Coupling  D) Entropy  E) Enzyme
F) Enzyme inhibitor    G) Induced fit  H) Metabolism   I) Plasmolysis  J) Substrate

31) the transfer of energy from processes that yield energy to those that consume it
C
32) a specific substance (reactant) on which an enzyme acts
J
33) a phenomenon that occurs in plant cells in a hypertonic environment
I
34) a measure of disorder, or randomness
D
35) the many chemical reactions that occur in organisms
H
36) chemicals that interfere with on enzyme's activities
F
37) the type of energy that reactants must absorb before a chemical reaction will start
A
38) a protein that serves as biological catalysts
E
39) the interaction between substrate molecules on the active site of an enzyme
G
40) the part of an enzyme molecule where a substrate molecule attaches
B


For each of the following phrases, pick the best term (A through J) that best matches it. Each term is used only once

A) aerobic  B) anaerobic  C) autotroph  D) facultative anaerobe  E) fermentation
F) hetertroph  G) obligate aerobe  H) obligate anaerobe  I) oxidation  J) reduction

41) on organism that cannot survive without oxygen
G
42) type of chemical reaction that does not use oxygen
B
43) organism that makes its organic matter from inorganic nutrients
C
44) acceptance of electrons during a redox reaction
J
45) on organism that cannot survive in the Presence of oxygen
H
46) loss of electrons during a redox reaction
I
47) anaerobic harvest of food energy
E
48) a type of anaerobe that con make ATP using aerobic or anaerobic respiration
D
49) chemical reaction using oxygen
A
50) organism that cannot make its own organic food molecules
F

51. Draw a figure representing the lipid bilayer of the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes. Include and labele each of the following components: peripheral protein, transmembrane protein, cholesterol, fiber of extracellular matrix, filament of the cytoskeleton, glycolipid, and integral glycoprotein







52. Write the overall balanced chemical equation for cellular respiration
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ----> 6CO2 + 6H2O

53. Which graph below (A or B) best represents each of the following terms. Place A or B in front of each of the following terms.

            _A_ anabolic reaction      _B_ catabolic reaction
            _B_ exergonic reaction    _A_endergonic reaction

















54. USE THE WORD BANK BELOW: Correctly name each stage of cellular respiration (A – D)
State the main reactants and products for each stages
List the net number of ATPs, NADHs, and FADH2s produced during each stage. Zero is an appropriate answer. Words may be used more than once

WORD BANK:
Acetyl CoA,         Carbon Dioxide                 Glucose                                Glycolysis
Citric Acid cycle                 Oxidative phosphorylation          Oxygen
Pyruvate              Shuttle Step                       Water

  





















BIO 106 Unit 3 Cell Biology Part 6

CLICK FOR ANSWERS

1.       Which of the following statements about osmosis is correct
A. The presence of aquaporins (proteins that form water channels in the membrane) should speed up the process of osmosis
B. Osmosis is the diffusion of water from a region of lower water concentration to a region of higher water concentration
C. Osmotic movement of water into a cell would likely occur if the cell accumulates water from its environment
D. IF a cell is placed in an istonic solution, more water will enter the cell than leaves the cell.
E. If a solution outside the cell is hypotonic compared to the cytoplasm, water will move into the cell by osmosis
CLICK FOR ANSWERS

2.       Which of the following statements about a typical plasma membrane is correct?
A. Carbohydrates on the membrane surface are important in determining the overall bilayer structure.
B. The hydrophilic interior of the membrane is composed primarily of the fatty acid tails of the phospholipids
C. The two sides of the plasma membrane have different lipid protein composition
D. The plasma membrane is a covalently linked network of phospholipids and proteins that controls the movement of solutes into and out of a cell
E. Phospholipids are the primary content that determines which solutes can cross the plasma membrane
CLICK FOR ANSWERS

3.       Which of the following correctly describes some aspect of exocytosis and endocytosis?
A. The inner surface of a transport vesicle that fuses with or buds from the plasma membrane is most closely related to the inner surface of the plasma membrane
B. Endocytosis and exocytosis involve passive transport
C. These two processes require the participation of mitochondria
D. Exocytosis and endocytosis change the surface area of the plasma membrane
E. Both processes provide a mechanism for exchanging membrane impermeable molecules between the organelles and the cytosol
CLICK FOR ANSWERS

4.       If the concentration of phosphate in the cytosol is 3.0 mM and the concentration of phosphate in the surrounding fluid is 0.2 mM, how could the cell increase the concentration of phosphate in the cytosol?
A. Passive transport
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Facilitated diffusion
CLICK FOR ANSWERS

5.       Which of the following is least likely to be important in holding components of a biological membrane together?
A. Hydrophobic interactions among the fatty acid tails of phospholipids on the same side of the membrane
B. Polar interactions among the phospholipid head groups on the same surface of the membrane
C. Hydrophobic interactions among the fatty acid tails of phospholipids on the opposite sides of the membrane
D. Covalent interactions between the phospholipid and protein components of the membrane
E. Hydrophobic interactions between the phospholipid tails and the surface of integral membrane proteins buried in the membrane
CLICK FOR ANSWERS


6.       The movement of glucose into a cell against a concentration gradient is most likely to be accomplished by which of the following?
A. Movement of glucose into the cell through a glucose cahnnel
B. Passive diffusion of the glucose through the lipid bilayer
C. Facilitated diffusion of the glucose using a carrier protein
D. Cotransport of the glucose with sodium ion that was pumped across the membrane using the energy of ATP hydrolysis
E. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
CLICK FOR ANSWERS

7.       The permeability of a biological membrane to a specific charged solute may depend on which of the following?
A. The total amount of cholesterol in the membrane
B. The types of transport proteins in the membrane
C. The phospholipid composition of the membrane
D. The presence of unsaturated fatty acids in the membrane
E. The types of polysaccharides present in the membrane
CLICK FOR ANSWERS

8.       Active and passive transport of solutes across the membrane typically differ in which of the following ways?
A. Active transport is usually down the concentration gradient of the solute, whereas passive transport is always against the concentration gradient of the solute
B. Active transport always involves the utilization of cellular energy, whereas passive transport does not require cellular energy
C. Active transport is always faster than passive transport
D. Active transport uses protein carriers, whereas passive transport uses carbohydrate carriers.
E. Active transport is used for ions, passive transport is used for uncharged solutes
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9.       Which of the following factors does not affect membrane fluidity and/or permeability
A. The amount of cholesterol in the membrane
B. Temperature
C. Saturation of hydrocarbon tails in membrane phospholipids
D. The polarity of membrane phospholipids
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10.   What distinguishes facilitated diffusion from simple diffusion?
A Water never moves through membranes by facilitated diffusion
B. No energy is used to move molecules ocross the membrane
C. Molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
D. Membrane proteins help move molecules across the membrane
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11.   Which of the following statements about the combustion of glucose with oxygen to form water and carbon dioxide is correct?
A. The free energy lost in this combustion is less than the energy that appears as heat.
B. The reverse reaction, making glucose from water and carbon dioxide, must be an exergonic reaction
C. The entropy of the products is greater than the entropy of the reactants.
D. The entropy of the universe decreases as the result of this reaction
E. This is the process of cellular respiration, on anabolic pathway that releases free energy
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12.   Which of these is exhibiting kinetic energy?
A. an archer with a flexed bow
B. a person sitting on a couch while watching TV
C. A space station orbiting Earth
D. a rock on o mountain ledge
E. The high-energy phosphate bonds of o molecule of ATP
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13.   Which of the following statements about equilibrium of chemical reactions is correct?
A. Reactions con only go in the direction toward equilibrium
B. The equilibrium point is where the system hos the highest free energy
C. The equilibrium point of a reaction represents the least stable configuration for that reaction
D. Most reactions in a living cell are close to equilibrium
E. A reaction that is at equilibrium is not capable of doing any work.
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14.   Which of the following would be unlikely to contribute to the specificity of an enzyme?
A. A positive charge on the substrate to a negative charge in the active site of the enzyme
B. The enzyme has the ability to change its configuration in response to the substrate binding
C. A hydrophobic Group on the substrate interacts with several hydrophobic amino acids on the enzyme
D. The enzyme has an allosteric regulatory site
E. A similar shape exists between a pocket on the surface of the enzyme and a functional group on the substrate
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15.   The binding of a compound to on enzyme is observed to slow down or stop the rate of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. increasing the substrate concentration reduces the inhibitory effects of this compound. Which of the following could account for this observation
A. The compound causes a cofactor to be last from the enzyme
B. The compound reduces disulfide bonds, causing the enzyme molecules to partially unfold
C. The compound forms a covalent bond with one of the amino acid residues needed f or enzyme activity.
D. The compound is a negative allosteric regulator
E. The compound is a competitive inhibitor
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16.   Which of the following statements about ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is correct?
A. Almost all of the free energy released on the hydrolysis of ATP is released as heat
B. the cycling between ATP on ADP +Pi provides an energy coupling between catabolic on anabolic pathways
C. The hydrolysis of ATP is an endergonic process
D. The hydrolysis of ATP con supply energy needed for catabolic pathways
E. The energy release on hydrolysis of ATP is the result of breaking a high-energy bond
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17.   Which statement about the binding of enzymes on substrates is correct?
A. substrate molecules fit into the active site of an enzyme like a key fits into a lock
B. substrate molecules bind to the active site of the enzyme, The enzyme undergoes a slight change in shape.
C. Substrate molecules bind to the active site of the enzyme only by weak bonds, such as hydrogen bonds or hydrophobic attraction
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18.   In general, most known enzymes are what kinds of molecules?
A. lipids
B. Proteins
C. carbohydrates
D. nucleic acids
E. minerals
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19.   How does on enzyme increase the rate of the chemical reaction it catalyzes?
A. An enzyme's active site binds only the reactants, on not the products of a reaction, pushing the equilibrium f or the reaction for to the right.
B. An enzyme reduces the free-energy change (delta G) of the reaction it catalyzes
C. An enzyme reduces the Activation Energy (Ea) of the reaction it catalyzes
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20.   the electrons stripped from glucose in aerobic cellular respiration end up forming which molecule?
A. Water
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. NADH
E. ATP
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21.   In this reaction ___________________________ 


















A. CD is a product
B. products have less potential energy that the reactants
C. AC is a reactant
D. entropy has decreased
E. the products have been rearranged to form reactants
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22.   Which statement about the citric acid cycle is correct?
A. The oxidation of compounds by the citric acid cycle directly requires molecular oxygen
B. The citric acid cycle oxidizes glucose to carbon dioxide
C. The citric acid cycle depends on the availability of NAD+, which is a product of glycolysis
D. The last reaction in the citric acid cycle produces a product that is a substrate for the first reaction of the citric acid cycle.
E. The citric acid cycle produces most of the ATP that is subsequently used by the electron transport chain
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23.   Which one of the following statements about the redox reactions of the electron transport chain is correct?
A. NADH gains electrons in the initial reaction of the electron transport chain.
B. The redox reactions of the electron transport chain ore directly coupled to the movement of protons across a membrane
C. The electron transport chain takes electrons from water and gives them to oxygen
D. The redox reactions of the electron transport chain ore directly coupled with the synthesis of ATP
E. The oxidation of NADH is directly coupled to the reduction of oxygen to water
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24.   Which of the following describes the process of glycolysis?
A. Glycolysis produces 30 ATP from each molecule of glucose
B. It requires ATP and NADH
C. Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
D. It represents the first stage in the chemical oxidation of glucose
E. It converts one glucose molecule to two molecules of pyruvate and carbon dioxide
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25.   A glucose molecule is completely broken down to carbon dioxide on water in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but together these two processes yield only a few molecules of ATP. What happened to most of the energy that the cell obtains from the oxidation of glucose?
A. It was lost as heat
B. It is stored in NADH and FADH2
C. It is stored in pyruvate
D. It is stored in carbon dioxide and water molecules released by these processes
E. It is stored in the ATP that was formed by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
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26.   In the combined process of glycolysis and cellular respiration, What is consumed and what is produced?
A. ATP is consumed, and oxygen is produced
B. Oxygen is consumed, and glucose is produced
C. Glucose is consumed, and carbon dioxide is produced
D. Water is consumed, and ATP is produced
E. Carbon dioxide is consumed, and water is produced
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27.   Identify the correct statement about the basic function of fermentation
A. The basic function of fermentation is the production of ethyl alcohol or lactic acid
B. The basic function of fermentation is the regeneration of NAD+, which allows continued ATP production by glycolysis
C. The basic function of fermentation is the production of additional ATP by further oxidation of the products of glycolysis
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28.   Select the correct statement about cellular respiration
A. Cellular respiration and breathing differ in that cellular respiration is at the cellular level, whereas breathing is at the organismal level
B. Animals carry out cellular respiration whereas plants carry out photosynthesis
C. Plants carry out cellular respiration only in organs such as roots that cannot carry out photosynthesis
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29.   In muscle cells, fermentation produces:
A. lactate, NAD+, and ATP
B. carbon dioxide, ethanol, NADH, and ATP
C. Pyruvate and NAD+
D. Carbon dioxide, ethanol, and NAD+
E. Pyruvate only
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30.   In cellular respiration, a series of molecules forming an electron transport chain alternatively accepts and then donates electrons. What is the advantage of such an electron transport chain?
A. The advantage of an electron transport chain is that a small amount of energy is released with the transfer of an electron between each pair of intermediates
B. The advantage of the respiratory electron transport chain is that oxygen is the final electron acceptor
C. The advantage of an electron transport chain is the production of a large number of reduced, high-energy intermediates.
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For each of the following phrases, pick the best term (A through J) that best matches it. Each term is used only once
A) Activation energy   B) Active site  C) Energy Coupling  D) Entropy  E) Enzyme
F) Enzyme inhibitor    G) Induced fit  H) Metabolism   I) Plasmolysis  J) Substrate

31) the transfer of energy from processes that yield energy to those that consume it
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32) a specific substance (reactant) on which an enzyme acts
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33) a phenomenon that occurs in plant cells in a hypertonic environment
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34) a measure of disorder, or randomness
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35) the many chemical reactions that occur in organisms
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36) chemicals that interfere with on enzyme's activities
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37) the type of energy that reactants must absorb before a chemical reaction will start
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38) a protein that serves as biological catalysts
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39) the interaction between substrate molecules on the active site of an enzyme
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40) the part of an enzyme molecule where a substrate molecule attaches
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For each of the following phrases, pick the best term (A through J) that best matches it. Each term is used only once

A) aerobic  B) anaerobic  C) autotroph  D) facultative anaerobe  E) fermentation
F) hetertroph  G) obligate aerobe  H) obligate anaerobe  I) oxidation  J) reduction

41) on organism that cannot survive without oxygen
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42) type of chemical reaction that does not use oxygen
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43) organism that makes its organic matter from inorganic nutrients
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44) acceptance of electrons during a redox reaction
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45) on organism that cannot survive in the Presence of oxygen
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46) loss of electrons during a redox reaction
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47) anaerobic harvest of food energy
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48) a type of anaerobe that con make ATP using aerobic or anaerobic respiration
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49) chemical reaction using oxygen
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50) organism that cannot make its own organic food molecules
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51. Draw a figure representing the lipid bilayer of the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes. Include and labele each of the following components: peripheral protein, transmembrane protein, cholesterol, fiber of extracellular matrix, filament of the cytoskeleton, glycolipid, and integral glycoprotein
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52. Write the overall balanced chemical equation for cellular respiration
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53. Which graph below (A or B) best represents each of the following terms. Place A or B in front of each of the following terms.

            ___ anabolic reaction      ___ catabolic reaction
            ___ exergonic reaction    ___endergonic reaction
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54. USE THE WORD BANK BELOW: Correctly name each stage of cellular respiration (A – D)
State the main reactants and products for each stages
List the net number of ATPs, NADHs, and FADH2s produced during each stage. Zero is an appropriate answer. Words may be used more than once

WORD BANK:
Acetyl CoA,         Carbon Dioxide                 Glucose                                Glycolysis
Citric Acid cycle                 Oxidative phosphorylation          Oxygen
Pyruvate              Shuttle Step                       Water