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BIO 106 Print Name: (Last name first)
EXAM II, 3/11/2011
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best
completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which type of interaction
stabilizes the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet structures of
proteins?
A) peptide bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) hydrophobic interactions
D) nonpolar covalent bonds E) ionic bonds
2) A strong covalent bond
between amino acids that functions in maintaining a polypeptide's specific three-dimensional
shape is a (an)
A) hydrophobic interaction. B) hydrogen bond. C) disulfide bond.
D) ionic bond. E) van der
Waals interaction.
3) Which of the following
descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?
A) a nitrogenous base and a
phosphate group B) a nitrogenous base
and a pentose sugar
C) a pentose sugar and a
purine or pyrimidine D) a phosphate
group and an adenine or uracil
E) a nitrogenous base, a
phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
4) The difference between the
sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA
A) contains one less oxygen
atom.
B) is a six-carbon sugar and
the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar.
C) has a six-membered ring of
carbon and nitrogen atoms.
D) can form a double-stranded
molecule.
E) can attach to a phosphate.
5) In his transformation
experiments, what did Griffith observe? (pathogenic = deadly)
A) Mixing a heat-killed
nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the
pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
B) Mutant mice were resistant
to bacterial infections.
C) Infecting mice with
nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.
D) Mice infected with a
pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.
E) Mixing a heat-killed
pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert
some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
6) What is meant by the
description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
A) One strand is positively
charged and the other is negatively charged.
B) The twisting nature of DNA
creates nonparallel strands.
C) The 5' to 3' direction of
one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
D) Base pairings create
unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
E) One strand contains only
purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.
7) For a science fair
project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with
modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the
phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to
five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal
than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work?
A) Amino acids (and thus
proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not
distinguish between DNA and proteins.
B) Although there are more
nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons;
therefore, they are more radioactive.
C) Radioactive nitrogen has a
half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too
long.
D) Avery et al. have already
concluded that this experiment showed inconclusive results.
E) There is no radioactive
isotope of nitrogen.
8) The leading and the
lagging strands differ in that
A) the leading strand is
synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.
B) the leading strand is
synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and
the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
C) the lagging strand is
synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short
fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
D) the leading strand is
synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the
lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.
9) The correct sequence of
events occurring during transcription is ______.
A) capping, tailing, splicing
B) splicing,
capping, tailing C) elongation,
initiation, termination
D) tailing, capping, splicing
E) initiation,
elongation, termination
10) The DNA of telomeres has been
found to be highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. What does
this most probably reflect?
A) that the critical function
of telomeres must be maintained
B) that new evolution of
telomeres continues
C) the low frequency of
mutations occurring in this DNA
D) that mutations in
telomeres are relatively advantageous
E) the inactivity of this DNA
11) Which of the following
best describes the addition of nucleotides to a growing DNA chain?
A) A nucleoside triphosphate
is added to the 5' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate.
B) A nucleoside triphosphate
is added to the 3' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate.
C) A nucleoside monophosphate
is added to the 5' end of the DNA.
D) A nucleoside diphosphate is
added to the 5' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate.
E) A nucleoside diphosphate
is added to the 3' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate.
12) Which of the following
statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome?
A) The number of genes on
each chromosome is different in different cell types of a single organism.
B) It is composed of DNA
alone.
C) Active transcription
occurs on heterochromatin.
D) It consists of a single
linear molecule of double-stranded DNA.
E) It is composed of a single
closed circular molecule of double-stranded DNA.
13) The nitrogenous base
adenine is found in all members of which group?
A) proteins, triglycerides,
and testosterone B) proteins,
carbohydrates, and ATP
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA D) alpha
glucose, ATP, and DNA
E) proteins, ATP, and DNA
14) A particular triplet of
bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for
the mRNA transcribed is
A) 5' TCA 3'. B) 3'ACU 5'. C) 5' UGA 3'. D) 3' UCA 5'. E) 5’ AGU 3’.
15) What amino acid sequence
will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?
5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
A) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu B) met-glu-arg-arg-gln-leu C) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
D) met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu E) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
16) In which of the following
actions does RNA polymerase differ from DNA polymerase?
A) RNA polymerase binds to
single-stranded DNA, and DNA polymerase binds to double-stranded DNA.
B) RNA polymerase can
initiate RNA synthesis, but DNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate DNA
synthesis.
C) RNA polymerase is much
more accurate than DNA polymerase.
D) RNA polymerase uses RNA as
a template, and DNA polymerase uses a DNA template.
E) RNA polymerase does not
need to separate the two strands of DNA in order to synthesize an RNA copy,
whereas DNA polymerase must unwind the double helix before it can replicate the
DNA.
17) Which of the following
help(s) to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?
A) 5' cap and poly (A) tail B) introns C)
spliceosomes D) RNA polymerase
E) TATA box
E) TATA box
18) Each eukaryotic mRNA,
even after post-transcriptional modification, includes 5' and 3' UTRs. What are
UTRs?
A) the U translation sites
that signal the beginning of translation
B) the cap and tail at each
end of the mRNA
C) the U attachment sites for
the tRNAs
D) the U — A pairs that are
found in high frequency at the ends
E) the untranslated regions
at either end of the coding sequence
19) A mutant bacterial cell
has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the
anticodon AAA instead of a phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell
will be that
A) the ribosome will skip a
codon every time a UUU is encountered.
B) the cell will compensate
for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying
anticodons.
C) proteins in the cell will
include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by
the codon UUU.
D) none of the proteins in
the cell will contain phenylalanine.
E) None of the above will
occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.
20) From the following list,
which is the first event in translation in eukaryotes?
A) base pairing of activated
methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
B) covalent bonding between
the first two amino acids
C) the larger ribosomal
subunit binds to smaller ribosomal subunits
D) elongation of the
polypeptide
E) the small subunit of the
ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA
21) Large numbers of
ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following
molecules?
A) starches B) glucose C)
steroids D) lipids E) proteins
22) Under which of the
following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a predominance of
free ribosomes?
A) a cell that is enlarging
its vacuole B) a cell
that is secreting proteins
C) a cell that is producing
cytoplasmic enzymes
D) a cell that is digesting food particles
D) a cell that is digesting food particles
E) a cell that is constructing
its cell wall or extracellular matrix
23) In animal cells,
hydrolytic enzymes are packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular
components. Which of the following organelles functions in this compartmentalization?
A) peroxisome B) lysosome C) glyoxysome D)
chloroplast E) central vacuole
24) The liver is involved in
detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is
primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells?
A) smooth ER B) Transport vesicles C) Golgi apparatus
D) Nuclear envelope E) rough ER
25) Which of the following
contains its own DNA and ribosomes?
A) vacuole B) mitochondrion C) lysosome D)
peroxisome E) Golgi apparatus
26) Which of the following relationships
between cell structures and their respective functions is correct?
A) chloroplasts: chief sites
of cellular respiration B) lysosomes:
formation of ATP
C) chromosomes: cytoskeleton
of the nucleus D) cell
wall: support, protection
E) ribosomes: secretion
27) Which structure-function
pair is mismatched?
A) nucleolus; production of
ribosomal subunits B) lysosome;
intracellular digestion
C) microtubule; muscle
contraction D) Golgi;
protein trafficking
E) ribosome; protein
synthesis
28) You find a cell of a type
you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall.
Therefore, you conclude that it must be a ______ cell.
A) animal B) bacterial C) liver D) plant E) prokaryotic
29) The endomembrane system includes
the ______.
A) Golgi apparatus,
mitochondria, lysosomes, and transport vesicles
B) endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and transport vesicles
C) endoplasmic reticulum,
mitochondria, lysosomes, and transport vesicles
D) endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and mitochondria
E) endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, and transport vesicles
30) Which of the following is
a characteristic of chloroplasts that suggests that they might have evolved
from free-living bacteria?
A) A single, highly folded
plasma membrane surrounds chloroplasts.
B) Chloroplasts contain
pigments. C) Chloroplasts
divide by meiosis.
D) Chloroplasts do not
produce ATP. E) Chloroplasts have
their own DNA.
31) (7 pts.) Draw a diagram indicating
the correct direction of the flow of genetic information. Include the following
terms: translation, RNA, transcription, protein, reverse transcription,
replication, DNA
32) (3 pts.) What is meant by
“pharming”.
This word is a part of language called a "Portmanteua"(Acombination of two or more words into one word - Farming and Pharmaceutical)
33) (10 pts.) Draw and label a
prokaryotic cell correctly showing the location of the following structures:
chromosome, ribosome, plasma membrane, cell wall, capsule, flagella, cytoplasm,
fimbriae, nucleoid region.
34) (10 pts.) Label
the following structures at least once: nuclear membrane, DNA, tRNA, mRNA,
ribosome, RNA polymerase, Aminoacyl-tRNA
synthetase, amino acid, cytoplasm.
Is this a eukaryotic cell or a prokaryotic cell (Circle one)?
35) (10 pts.) Correctly label
the following organelles and then label their membranes and compartments.
(chloroplast, mitochondria, outer membrane (use this term 2X), inner membrane
(use this term 2X), thylakoid membrane, thylakoid space, matrix, stroma,
intermembrane space)
MULTIPLE
CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that
best completes the statement or answers the question.
(1.5 pts.
each)
1) DNA and
RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
A) nucleic
acid B) amino acid
C) nucleotide D) carbohydrate E) fatty acid
2) The
backbone of DNA consists of ______.
A) nitrogenous
bases B) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern C) paired nucleotides
D) a
repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
E) a
repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern
3) The DNA
double helix is ______.
A) composed
of adenine and thymine B) a puzzle to
geneticists C) composed of two
chromosomes
D) composed
of adenine and guanine E) made up of
two polynucleotide strands
4) RNA
contains ______, whereas DNA contains ______.
A) uracil .
. . thymine B) cytosine . .
. guanine C) nucleotides . . .
nucleic acids
D) a
deoxyribose sugar . . . a ribose sugar E)
adenine . . . guanine
5) If
adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the
bases are guanine?
A) 60% B) 30% C) 80% D)
40% E) 20%
6) In a DNA
double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
A) guanine .
. . adenine B) uracil
. . . cytosine C) cytosine
. . . uracil
D) thymine .
. . cytosine E) cytosine
. . . thymine
7) If one
strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence 3'GTCCAT5', what is the sequence of
the other strand?
A) 5'ACTTGC3' B) 3'CAGGUA5' C) 5'CAGGTA3' D)3'
TGAACG 5'
E)3' CUGGTU 5'
E)3' CUGGTU 5'
8) What type
of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
A) covalent B) hydrogen C) hydrophilic D) hydrophobic
E) ionic
9) After replication,
______.
A) each new
DNA double helix consists of two old strands
B) each new
DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix
C) one new
DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix
consists of two new strands
D) each new
DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand
E) each new
DNA double helix consists of two new strands
10) During
replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for elongating the new DNA by
joining nucleotides together.
A) DNA
polymerases B) DNA helicases C) DNA gyrases D) DNA ligases E)
DNases
11) How many
nucleotides make up a codon?
A) two B) one C) three D)
four E) five
12) Transcription
is the ______.
A) manufacture
of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA
B) manufacture
of a new strand of DNA complementary to an old strand of DNA
C) manufacture
of a protein based on information carried by RNA
D) manufacture
of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix
E) modification
of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein
13) If a
strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n)
______.
A) DNA
double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the
complimentary strand
B) RNA
double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the complimentary
strand
C) single
RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG
D) single
DNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
E) single
RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
14) Which of
the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
A) RNA
ligase B) RNase C) RNA polymerase D) RNA gyrase E) RNA helicase
15) The
region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______.
A) promoter B) initiator C) start codon D)
processor E) terminator
16) The
correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.
A) splicing,
capping, tailing B) elongation,
initiation, termination C) tailing,
capping, splicing
D) capping,
tailing, splicing E) initiation,
elongation, termination
17) What
protects mRNA from attack by cytoplasmic enzymes in eukaryotic cells?
A) RNA
splicing B) the excision of
exons C) the lack of
RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm
D) the
excision of introns E) a cap and
tail
18) The
expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.
A) introns B) exons C) promoters D)
tails E) caps
19)Translation
converts the information stored in ______ to
______.
A) RNA . . .
a polypeptide B) DNA . . . RNA C) protein . . . DNA
D) RNA . . .
DNA E) DNA . . . a
polypeptide
20) The RNA
that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA.
A) nucleolar
B) messenger C) ribosomal D)
nuclear E) transfer
21) The DNA
codon AGT codes for an amino acid carried by a tRNA with the anticodon ______.
A) TCA B) AGT C) UCA D)
AGU E) TCU
22) Peptide
bonds form between ______.
A) amino
acids B) an mRNA
transcript and the small ribosomal subunit
C) a tRNA
and the amino acid it is carrying D) an
mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon
E) the small
ribosomal subunit and the large ribosomal subunit
23) Viruses
that infect bacteria are ______.
A) retroviruses
B) enveloped viruses C) proviruses D) bacteriophages E) emerging
viruses
24) The two
basic types of cells are ______ and ______.
A) bacterial
. . . protist B) bacterial
. . . animal C) plant . . .
animal
D) prokaryotic
. . . eukaryotic E) nerve .
. . muscle
25) When
using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your
fingernails, you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, you conclude
that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.
A) fungal B) animal C) prokaryotic D)
plant E) eukaryotic
26) The
difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells
______ prokaryotic cells.
A) have a
nucleus surrounded by a membrane, which is lacking in
B) lack the
complexity seen in
C) have a
nucleoid region, which is lacking in
D) have DNA,
which is lacking in
E) have a
plasma membrane, which is lacking in
27) Which of
the following is a function of the plasma membrane?
A) regulation
of the passage of material into and out of the cell
B) control
center of the cell
C) intracellular
digestion
D) protein
synthesis
E) fat
synthesis
28) In
eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the
plasma membrane?
A) nucleoplasm
B) gene C) cytoplasm D) phospholipid bilayer
29) In
eukaryotic cells, organelles are suspended within the ______.
A) phospholipid
bilayer B) cytosol C) gene D)
nucleoplasm
30) The
concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ______.
A) phospholipids
and proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
B) phospholipids
but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
C) carbohydrates
to drift into and out of the membrane structure
D) nucleotides
to drift into and out of the membrane structure
E) proteins
but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane
31) The
nuclear envelope is composed of ______.
A) genes B) a single lipid bilayer C) DNA D) a double lipid bilayer E) carbohydrates
32) What
name is given to the cellular region that manufactures the components of
ribosomes?
A) nucleus B) chromosome C) nucleolus D)
endoplasmic reticulum E) cytoplasm
33) Which of
the following organelles is NOT defined by a membrane?
A) chloroplast
B) endoplasmic reticulum C) ribosome D) lysosome E) Golgi
apparatus
34) Where
does protein synthesis take place?
A) in the
nucleolus B) in the
nucleus C) on smooth endoplasmic
reticulum
D) in the
Golgi apparatus E) on ribosomes
35) The
endomembrane system includes ______.
A) Golgi
apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum
B) Golgi
apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi
apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and ribosomes
D) ribosomes,
lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi
apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
36) A
hormone destined for secretion from the cell would be manufactured by ribosomes
_____.
A) suspended
in the nucleoplasm B)
attached to the endoplasmic reticulum
C) attached
to the plasma membrane D) suspended
in the cytosol
E) attached
to the Golgi apparatus
37) Functions
of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ______.
A) steroid
synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification
B) lipid
synthesis, steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification
C) lipid
synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification
D) lipid
synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification
E) lipid
synthesis, steroid synthesis, and protein synthesis
38) Which of
the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
A) protein
synthesis B) intracellular
digestion C) protein modification
D) drug
detoxification E) cellular
respiration
39) Lysosomes
are responsible for ______.
A) protein
synthesis B) lipid
synthesis C) intracellular
digestion
D) photosynthesis
E) cellular
respiration
40) A
bacterial cell's DNA is found in its ______.
A) nucleoid
region B) ribosomes C) nucleus D) peroxisome E) capsule
41) Consider the figure of the nucleotide.
a. Circle and label the nitrogenous base, ribose sugar and phosphate
group in the following figure.
B. Accurately number the
carbons on the sugar.
C.
Is the nitrogenous base is a pyrimidine or a purine?
43) Correctly label the following parts of the mRNA molecule
shown below.
(Start codon, 5’ cap, Stop codon, poly-A-tail, 3’ UTR,
polyadenylation signal, protein –coding segment, 5 ‘ UTR)
44) Correctly
label the following organelles and then label their membranes and compartments.
(chloroplast, mitochondria, outer membrane (use this term 2X), inner membrane
(use this term 2X), thylakoid membrane, thylakoid space, matrix, stroma,
intermembrane space)
45) Draw a lipid bilayer. Indicate with brackets the regions that are hydrophobic and hydrophilic.
46) Label the following structures at least once: nuclear
membrane, DNA, tRNA, mRNA, ribosome, RNA polymerase, Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, amino acid, cytoplasm.
Is this a eukaryotic cell or a prokaryotic
cell (Circle one)?
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one
alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding
the strands that make up DNA?
A) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3'
direction of the other strand.
C) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
D) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively
charged.
E) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only
pyrimidines.
2) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic
material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts in their
bacteriophage experiments?
A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.
B) RNA includes ribose, whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.
C) Proteins contain sulfur, whereas DNA does not.
D) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.
E) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines.
3) Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E.
coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if
a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?
A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have
radioactive DNA.
B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.
C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.
D) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.
E) Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine.
4) Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3'
direction?
A) DNA polymerase B) helicase C) primase D) topoisomerase
E) DNA ligase
5) The leading and the lagging strands differ in that
A) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3'
end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding
nucleotides to the 5' end.
B) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the
movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the
opposite direction.
C) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging
strand.
D) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading
strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
6) A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because
A) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides
at the 3' end.
B) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5' direction.
C) replication must progress toward the replication fork.
D) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the
template.
E) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end.
7) Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while
they are being replicated?
A) exonuclease B)
primase C) DNA polymerase D) ligase
E) single-strand binding proteins
8) What is the function of topoisomerase?
A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
B) elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to
the existing chain
C) unwinding of the double helix
D) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork
E) adding methyl groups to bases of DNA
9) What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging
strand during DNA replication?
A) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres. B) It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer.
C) It unwinds the parental double helix. D) It joins Okazaki fragments together.
E) It stabilizes the unwound parental DNA.
10) In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium
containing "heavy" nitrogen (15N) and then transferred them to a
medium containing 14N. Which of the results in the figure above would be
expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of 14N?
A) A B) B C)
C D) D E) E
11) What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the
DNA double helix?
A) ionic B) covalent C) sulfhydryl D) phosphate E)
hydrogen
12) Which of the following best describes the flow of information in
eukaryotic cells?
A) DNA → RNA → proteins B) DNA → proteins → RNA C) RNA → proteins
→ DNA
D) RNA → DNA → proteins E) proteins → DNA → RNA
13) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of
molecules known as nucleotides?
A) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar B) a phosphate group and an
adenine or uracil
C) a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine D)
a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
E) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
14) If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage
of guanine?
A) 20 B) 80 C) 10 D) 40 E)
impossible to tell from the information given
15) In the double helix structure of nucleic acids, cytosine hydrogen
bonds to
A) thymine. B) adenine. C) ribose. D) deoxyribose. E)
guanine.
16) Which of the following store and transmit hereditary information?
A) proteins B)
nucleic acids C)carbohydrates D) lipids
17) Which component is not directly involved in translation?
A) tRNA B) ribosomes C)
GTP D) mRNA E) DNA
18) Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short
stretch of a normal double helix of DNA?
A) 5'-A-G-C-T-3' with 5'-T-C-G-A-3'
B) 5'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-3' with 3'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-5'
C) 5'-G-C-G-C-3' with 5'-T-A-T-A-3'
D) 5'-A-T-G-C-3' with 5'-G-C-A-T-3'
E) All of these pairs are correct.
19) The backbone of DNA consists of ______.
A) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern B) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern
C) paired nucleotides D)
a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
E) nitrogenous bases
20) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
A) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
B) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA
strands.
C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.
D) It translates viral RNA into proteins.
E) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA.
21) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which
group?
A) α glucose, ATP, and DNA B)
proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone D) ATP, RNA, and DNA
E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP
22) What is a ribozyme?
A) an RNA with enzymatic activity
B) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication
C) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
D) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and
small ribosomal subunits
E) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
23) What is the name given to the process in which pre-mRNA is edited
into mRNA
A) RNA processing B)
gene expression C)
polypeptide formation
D) transcription E)
translation
24) Polypeptides are assembled from
A) hexoses B) glycerol C) nucleotides D) proteins E)
amino acids
25) A codon consists of bases and specifies which will be inserted into the polypeptide chain.
A) two…nucleotides B)
four…fatty acid C)
three…amino acids
D) four…amino acids E)
three…nucleotides
26) What is the process called that converts the genetic information
stored in DNA to an RNA copy?
A) Translocation B)
Replication C) Translation D) Transcription
27) Transcription begins at a promoter. What of the following is the
best description of a promoter?
A) Part of the RNA molecule itself B)
A site in DNA that recruits the RNA polymerase
C) A site found on the RNA polymerase D)
A nontranscribed sequence on the DNA
E) A site where many different proteins will bind nonspecifically
28) The direction of synthesis of an RNA transcript is
A) 1’ à 5’ B) 5’ à 3’ C) 2’ à 4’ D) 3’ à 5’ E) 1’ à 3’
29) What is the function of RNA polymerase?
A) It unwinds the double helix and adds nucleotides to a growing
strand of RNA
B) It proceeds slowly along the DNA strand, requiring about a minute
to add two nucleotides to the growing mRNA molecule.
C) It adds nucleotides to the 5’ end of the growing mRNA nucleotide
D) It relies on other enzymes to unwind the double helix.
E) All of the above
30) During RNA processing a(n) is added to the 5’ end of the RNA.
A) 3’ untranslated region B)
modified guanine nucleotide C)
coding segment
D) 5” untranslated region E)
a long strand of adenine nucleotide
31) The RNA segments joined to one another by spliceosomes are .
A) caps B) snRNPs C) introns D) exons E)
tails
32) Translation occurs in the
A) nucleus B) nucleoplasm C) mitochondrion D) cytoplasm E) lysosome
33) Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.
A) RNA . . . DNA B)
DNA . . . RNA C)
protein . . . DNA
D) DNA . . . a polypeptide E)
RNA . . . a polypeptide
34) The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA.
A) ribosomal B) nuclear
C) nucleolar D) transfer E) messenger
35) Where is translation accomplished?
A) nucleoli B)
sER C) peroxisomes D) ribosomes E) lysosomes
36) Peptide bonds form between ______.
A) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit
B) amino acids
C) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying
D) the small ribosomal subunit and the large ribosomal subunit
E) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon
37) A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in
mRNA would ______.
A) result in an amino acid substitution
B) result in a shortened polypeptide chain
C) result in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one
produced prior to the mutation
D) alter the reading frame
E) alter the location at which transcription of the next gene begins
38) How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without
causing cell death?
A) via a lysogenic cycle B)
by altering the way a cell splices its RNA
C) via a lytic cycle D) via a Calvin cycle E) by altering its DNA
Please read the following scenario to answer the following
question(s).
While working with cultured mouse cells, a researcher unknowingly
treated her cells with a mutagen that although rare, causes deletion or
insertion of individual bases in DNA. Subsequently, she isolated and cultured a
single cell from this group and noticed that the progeny of this cell were not
producing a certain protein and this was having an effect on their viability.
39) The mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it resulted
in ______.
A) substitution of a base pair
B) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence
C) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence
D) a single nucleotide in the middle of the intron
E) deletion of a triplet near the middle of the gene
40) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
A) an endoplasmic reticulum. B)
DNA. C) ribosomes. D) a cell wall. E) a plasma membrane.
41) If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a
culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect
to find the greatest concentration of radioactivity?
A) ribosomes B) nucleus C) endoplasmic reticulum D) cytoplasm E) nucleoid region
42) Which organelle or structure is absent in bacterial cells?
A) microtubules B)
mitochondria C) peroxisomes D) Golgi vesicles
E) all of the above would be absent
43) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in
producing which of the following molecules?
A) nucleic acids B)
cellulose C) glycogen D) proteins E) lipids
44) A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely
A) digesting large food particles. B)
producing primarily proteins for secretion.
C) producing primarily cytoplasmic proteins. D) constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix.
E) enlarging its vacuole.
45) Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the
synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?
A) contractile vacuole B)
lysosome C)
ribosome
D) mitochondrion E)
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
46) Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent
general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles
contains these hydrolytic enzymes in animal cells?
A) chloroplast B) lysosome C) glyoxysome D) central vacuole E)
peroxisome
47) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may
be exported from the cell?
A) lysosomes B) free
cytoplasmic ribosomes C) plasmodesmata D) Golgi vesicles
E) rough ER
48) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs.
Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and
therefore abundant in liver cells?
A) Golgi apparatus B)
rough ER C) transport vesicles D) nuclear envelope E) smooth ER
49) Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic
cells?
A) lysosome B) peroxisome C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E)
vacuole
50) Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes?
A) glyoxysome B) peroxisome C) vacuole D)
mitochondrion E) Golgi apparatus
51) Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in
A) mitochondria. B)
nuclei. C) lysosomes.
D) chloroplasts. E) vacuoles.
52) In a plant cell, DNA may be found
A) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts. B) only in the nucleus and
mitochondria.
C) only in the nucleus. D)
in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes.
E) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts.
53) A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA,
ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from
A) an animal, but not a plant. B)
any multicellular organism, like a plant or an animal.
C) nearly any eukaryotic organism. D)
a bacterium.
E) any kind of organism.
54) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by
interacting with what types of cellular structures?
A) ribosomes B)
cytoskeletal structures C) membrane
proteins
D) cellulose fibers in the cell wall E)
sites of energy production in cellular respiration
55) Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?
A) plasma membrane B) nuclear
envelope C) Golgi apparatus D) ER E)
chloroplast
56) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
A) mitochondrion B)
central vacuole C) wall made of
cellulose D) chloroplast E) centriole
57) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?
A) ribosome B) ER C) chloroplast D)
mitochondrion E) nuclear envelope
58) What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized
protein that will be secreted by a cell?
A) ER →lysosomes →vesicles that fuse with plasma
membrane B)
ER → Golgi → nucleus
C) Golgi →ER →lysosome D) ER →Golgi →vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
E) nucleus →ER →Golgi
59) Similar to the nucleus, chloroplasts and mitochondria are ______.
A) manufactured by the nucleolus B)
green C) able to synthesize
lipids
D) surrounded by two membranes E)
not bounded by membrane
60)
What name is given to the cellular region that manufactures the components of
ribosomes?
A) nucleus B) chromosome C) nucleolus D)
endoplasmic reticulum E)
cytoplasm
61) removed for redundancy
62) (10
pts.) Place the following phrases in the appropriate locations in the diagram
of the DNA replication fork to describe the name or function of each structure.
A. Relaxes supercoiled DNA
B. Coats single-stranded DNA
C. Synthesizes RNA primers on
leading and lagging strand
D. Synthesizes DNA 5’ to 3”
on the leading and lagging strands
E. Breaks hydrogen bonds,
unwinding DNA double helix
F. Catalyzes phosphodiester
bond formation, joining DNA fragments
G. Replaces RNA primers with
DNA nucleotides
H. Leading strand
I. Lagging strand
J. Draw an arrow indicating
the overall direction in which the replication fork is moving
63) Deleted due to redundancy
64) Is
this a eukaryotic cell or a prokaryotic cell?
Briefly explain
65) Label
and give a function for each of the indicated structures in the eukaryotic
animal cell. There are multiple possible
correct answers for the function of each structure; you just need to provide
one.
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Flagelum
C. RER
D. SER
E. Nuclear Membrane
F. Nucleolus
G. Chromatin
H. Nucleus
I. Centrosome
J. Plasma Membrane
K. Cytoskeleton (intermediate filament, Microfilament, and Microtubles)
L. Ribosomes (quite hard to see in this)
M. Golgi Complex (Golgi Apparatus)
N. Lysosome (impossible to distinguish from a Peroxisome in drawing)
O. Mitochondrion
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